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I don't think it's said anywhere that the vendor doesn't own it. There are credit deals where ownership passes to the borrower: it's basically a secured or non-secured loan, and in either case the purchaser owns the car. Anyway, that's by-the-way.
Car dealers are always happy to take trade-ins where there is finance outstanding: it's quite common. The dealer gets a settlement figure from the bank, and deducts it from the trade-in. I'm pretty sure it can all be done very quickly these days as part of a single transaction.
It does puzzle me, though, as others have pointed out, what the seller in this case gets out the deal. He owes £7,800; he'll sell for £7,000 and so needs to find £800 of his own cash as that part of the deal. He's buying another car, details not given though to be dated 1st September. That makes me think it might be a new car; but anyway it will probably cost rather more than £7,000. Let's say £10,000.
So on that part of the deal he'll have to find the full 10 grand, making his total outlay £10,800. On the other hand, if he sold to the dealer instead, he'd have to find £11,000, which is £10,000 new car - £6,800 trade-in £7,800 settlement. And it's quite possible that the dealer has enough pull to get a better settlement figure than the OP could do by himself, or at least offer some more flexibility on trade-in.
So for £200 on an outlay of £11k or so, he wants to go through all that hassle. It does not compute. Barge and pole spring to mind. |
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